The Project Management Institute awards the Project Management Professional (PMP) as the world’s most renowned project management qualification. It draws a lot of company executives and project specialists who want to advance their careers. However, are you ready to appear for this challenging exam?
If not, let us take you through a curated selection of the most recent and pertinent PMP practice questions, complemented by skillfully produced solutions. Whether you’re an experienced professional looking to validate your abilities or a beginner looking to certify, our questions and solutions boost confidence and provide tips for success.
PMP Exam Overview
The PMP exam assesses applicants’ competence in managing the workforce, procedures, and business priorities in an uncertain and dynamic world. This popular and valuable certification requires meticulous preparation, willpower, and an intense focus.
Following the most recent exam topic outline modification, the PMP examination now comprises 180 questions (instead of 200), two ten-minute breaks (instead of one), and three phases/domains (instead of five).
Now, let’s dive into sample PMP questions to help you navigate your way through this challenging certificate exam.
Top Sample PMP Questions and Answers for Exams
Given below are the top free PMP exam sample questions, answers, and thorough explanations to aid you with your project management learning.
1. You are a new project manager without any prior experience. In this case, relying on _____ while planning to increase your chances of success would be BEST.
A- Your intuition and training
B- Stakeholder analysis
C- Historical information
D- Configuration management
The answer is C. Historical information. Before starting a new project, the first item to look into is previous knowledge of similar projects in the company’s process assets library.
2. You and the sponsor are discussing which estimation methodologies should be employed early in the life of your project. You want expert judgement, while the sponsor prefers analogous estimating. It would be BEST if you:
A- Accept similar estimating as a type of expert judgement.
B- Propose life cycle costing.
C- Determine why the sponsor requires such a precise estimate.
D- Try to persuade the sponsor that expert judgment is usually more correct.
A is the correct answer. Accept comparable estimating because it is a type of expert judgement. You can accept analogous estimating because it is a form of expert judgement. This is a difficult question.
3 A project manager is working on a request for proposal (RFP). In what stage of the procurement procedure is she?
A- Carryout procurements
B- Plan Purchases
C- Procurement Control
D- Complete Procurement
The answer is B; she is in the process of procuring a plan. RFPs are also procurement documents. As a result, it is prepared as part of the planned procurement process. The RFP specifies what the buyer expects from the seller.
4. You wish to organise your project stakeholders according to their level of authority and involvement in the project. Which of the following models is appropriate for this?
A- Grid of Power and Interest
B- Grid of Power/Influence
C- Grid of Influence/Impact
D- Salience Model
B is the correct answer: Power/Influence Grid. The authority of a stakeholder indicates the stakeholder’s power, while the involvement of a stakeholder shows the stakeholder’s amount of influence.
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5. All of the following statements are valid in the context of a desirable model of communication between a sender and a receiver EXCEPT:
A- Noise should be kept to a minimum.
B- After deciphering the message, the receiver must respond.
C- The receiver should acknowledge the sender’s communication before agreeing to it.
D- The receiver should provide feedback to the sender.
The correct answer is C. The sender is responsible for the message’s transmission as part of the communications process, as well as ensuring the information being sent is clear and full and confirming the communication is correctly comprehended.
6. Which procedures include measuring, inspecting, and verifying work and deliverables to ensure they meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A- Workshops
B- Surveys
C- Expert Opinion
D- Inspection
The correct answer is D. Inspection activities include measuring, inspecting, and validating work and deliverables to evaluate whether they meet specifications and product acceptance standards.
7. As a project manager, you are responsible for managing stakeholders’ expectations. All of the above are interpersonal skills that you should employ EXCEPT:
A- Establishing confidence
B- Conflict resolution
C- Risk-taking
D- Listening actively
The correct answer is C. The project manager uses interpersonal skills to manage the expectations of stakeholders.
8. Your company has formed a partnership with a service company to create a software programme. During the teaming agreement process, which of the following should be prepared collaboratively by both the buyer and the seller?
A- Contract
B- Contract, work statement for procurement
C- Proposal Request
D- Human Resource Plan
The correct answer is B. In rare circumstances, the seller may already be working under a contract sponsored by the buyer or both parties jointly. In this procedure, the buyer and seller collaborate to create a procurement statement of work that meets the project’s needs.
9. You’re attempting to collect ideas for project and product needs. Which technique is best for this?
A- Brainstorming
B- Nominal Group Technique
C- Affinity Diagram
D- Decision Analysis Using Multiple Criteria
A is the correct answer. A technique for generating and collecting multiple ideas for project and product requirements.
10. In your risk management strategy, you have documented all potential risks to your project, along with suitable risk actions when they arise. All remaining dangers are referred to as:
A- Risk Indicators
B- Uncontrollable Risks
C- Residual Threats
D- Risks Accepted
The answer is C. Residual threats are those expected to persist after planned responses have been implemented, as well as those that have been knowingly accepted.
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11. _________ are not usually the result of distinct organisational cultures and practices.
A- Visions, values, standards, beliefs, and expectations are all shared.
B- Coworkers’ personal characteristics and attitudes.
C- Views on authority relationships.
D- Policies, methods, and procedures.
The correct answer is B. Personality refers to individual differences in distinct patterns of thinking, feeling, and action. Personality attributes are not usually indicative of a company’s overall culture.
12. The most prevalent source of project dispute is:
A- Schedules
B- Technical viewpoints
C- Personal matters
D- Priorities for the project
The correct answer is A. Schedules are regarded as one of the most typical sources of dispute in a project.
13. The management style that fosters team spirit, promotes good work, and encourages teams to reach their full potential is as follows:
A- Facilitating
B- Promotional
C- Conciliatory
D- Authoritarian
B is the correct answer. Promotional: Fosters team spirit; recognises and rewards good work; and encourages subordinates to reach their full potential.
14. As a project manager, you must be open and honest about:
A- Confidential information.
B- Proprietary information.
C- Unproven information and hearsay are spread.
D- Your decision-making procedures.
D is the correct option. According to the PMI code of ethics, 4.2.1 We provide transparency in our decision-making process.
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15. To be successful, bargaining must take place in the following conditions:
A- Flexibility and comprehension are required.
B- Sincerity and consideration.
C- Mutual respect and cooperation are essential.
D- Sincerity and sensible caution are required.
The right option is C. One of the five Cs of written communication is negotiating to reach mutually acceptable agreements between parties and reduce approval or decision delays.
16. The “halo effect” is the proclivity to:
A- From within, promote.
B- Employ the best.
C- People skilled in their technical fields should be promoted to project management.
D- People should be moved into project management because they have received training.
The correct answer is C. The halo effect is the tendency for positive impressions of a person, organisation, brand, or product in one area to impact one’s attitude or feelings in another.
17. Active listening is defined as:
A- When the speaker is speaking, pay close attention.
B- When the speaker is unclear, ask questions.
C- Both A and B are correct.
D- Neither A nor B are correct.
The option C is correct. Active listening techniques include acknowledging, clarifying, verifying, comprehending, and removing barriers to comprehension.
18. What percentage of the Project Manager’s time is spent communicating?
A- 30%
B- 50%
C- 70%
D- 90%
Option D is correct. According to research, top project managers spend approximately 90% of their time on a project communicating.
19. Which of these is correct for a product developed or a service performed?
A- Poor quality is tolerated, but poor grades are not.
B- A poor grade is tolerable, but poor quality is not.
C- Either a poor grade or poor quality is acceptable.
D- grade and quality are synonymous.
Option B is correct. While a quality level that fails to meet quality requirements is always a problem, a low-grade product may not be a problem.
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20. Variance/trend analysis is performed throughout the following processes:
A- Risk assessment and management
B- Response to risk
C- Risk assessment
D- Plan for Risk Mitigation
Option A is correct. Variance analysis examines the discrepancies (or variance) between planned and actual performance. This can include estimates for duration, costs, resource utilisation, resource rates, technical performance, and other variables.
21. Who is in charge of recognising and managing risk?
A- Project manager
B- Team members
C- Project sponsor
D- Functional manager
A is the correct option. The project manager is in charge of identifying and managing risks.
22. What proportion of the overall distribution does 3 Sigma from the mean represent?
A- 68.26%
B- 99.99%
C- 95.46%
D- 99.73%
D is the correct option. According to common probability, 99.73% of all events will fall within three standard deviations of the mean (above or below); this is Three Sigma.
23. A work breakdown structure, a status report, and a responsibility assignment matrix are typically employed throughout a project. However, their application may be iterative. Here are several examples:
A- Tools for Project Management
B- Deliverables
C- Milestones
D- Work products
Option B is correct. Deliverables are quantifiable items or services that must be provided at various stages of a project and at the end of the project.
24. A project was evaluated, and the following earned value data were discovered: AC: $900,000 PV: $750,000 EV: $750,000 What is the project’s burn rate?
A- 1
B- 1.2
C- 0.83
D- 1.1
Option B is correct. CPI =750000/900000 =0.833 Burn rate is the inverse of CPI (1/.833=1.20)
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25. According to Herzberg’s Motivation theory, which of the following is a hygiene factor?
A- Salary
B- Accountability
C- Promotions
D- Recognition and rewards
A is the right option. According to Herzberg, the sources of discontent are “hygiene factors.” To get rid of them, make sure your pay is competitive.
26. Project Quality Management is the process of incorporating the organisation’s quality policy into project and product quality standards in order to:
A- Meet the objectives of stakeholders
B- Improve process capabilities
C- Keep control of your products, services, and outcomes.
D- Meet the project team’s performance expectations.
Option A is the answer.
Project Quality Management encompasses the methods for combining an organisation’s quality policy into project and product quality criteria in order to achieve stakeholders’ objectives. Project Quality Management also supports the performing organisation’s continual process improvement operations.
27. Understanding, measuring, specifying, and controlling needs are essential for attaining the following goals:
A- Customer anticipations
B- The statement of scope
C- Management at the highest levels
D- Functional specifications
A is the correct answer. The process of monitoring and documenting the outcomes of quality management operations in order to evaluate performance and ensure project outputs are complete, correct, and fulfil customer expectations.
28. A schedule compression approach is one that is utilised to decrease the scheduled time while incurring the least amount of incremental cost by adding resources.
A- Programme evaluation and review technique (PFRT)
B- Crashing
C- PDM stands for precedence diagramming method.
D- Rapid tracking
B is the answer.
Schedule compression techniques are utilised to shorten or accelerate the schedule duration without compromising the project scope to satisfy schedule limits, enforced dates, or other schedule objectives. The negative float analysis is an effective technique.
29. What exactly is portfolio management?
A- Managing the project file’s numerous contents.
B- Managing the levels of financial authority to facilitate making project decisions
C- The centralised management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic goals.
D- Using resource levelling heuristics to achieve all of the organisation’s strategic goals
D is the answer.
Portfolio management is the centralised management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic goals.
30. Parametric estimation requires the following steps:
A- Specifying project cost and duration parameters
B- Developing independent cost estimates for each work package and merging them to calculate the overall project cost
C- Developing a cost estimate for project work by establishing a statistical relationship between relevant historical data and other variables.
D- Estimating the current project’s cost based on the actual cost of a previous similar project
Option A is the solution.
Analysing cost, programmatic, and technical data to identify cost drivers and construct cost models for project life cycle cost and duration parameters is what metric estimating includes.
Strategies to Choose the Best Answer on PMP Exam Questions
While a uniform method is not applicable to this exam, here are some helpful suggestions and approaches a candidate may take to guarantee that they select the correct answer for the questions.
- Use the elimination process first to remove the incorrect alternatives and then zero in on the right option.
- Understand question types – You should be able to determine which of the four question types is being asked to understand and respond effectively.
- For formula-based questions, performing calculations while reading the question to obtain the estimate in mind and viewing the options will help avoid incorrect and confusing choices.
- Use a review flag to skip ahead and review or return to questions once you’ve answered all of them.
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Conclusion
As we conclude our ‘Top PMP Example Questions & Answers for 2024,’ we’ve provided you with an effective resource to help you prepare for the PMP exam.” These carefully chosen questions and extensive answers provide insight into every aspect of project management, helping you to enhance your abilities and knowledge.
As you begin your PMP certification path, note that constant practice and ongoing learning are your greatest assets. We wish you the best of luck in passing the PMP exam and establishing a successful career in project management.
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